zaid_ibn_ali
30th May 2008, 09:10 PM
We know many scholars did. Those who are against the layman following a madhab says only a scholar can follow a madhab. Those who disagree say that the layman must follow a madhab.
Now here's the one million dollar question, did the laymen in the times of those famous scholars who followed a madhab also follow a madhab?
I can sense this thread getting confusing i.e. some will say no they didnt because they followed the scholars who in turn followed a madhab, so they were following their local ulema rather than the madhab itself.
I would like to see both sides present proof as to whether the above is correct or not.
Now here's the one million dollar question, did the laymen in the times of those famous scholars who followed a madhab also follow a madhab?
I can sense this thread getting confusing i.e. some will say no they didnt because they followed the scholars who in turn followed a madhab, so they were following their local ulema rather than the madhab itself.
I would like to see both sides present proof as to whether the above is correct or not.