View Full Version : Fiqhi puzzles
Abu Faaris As-Sumalee
15th November 2006, 08:01 AM
Ok here are are a few fiqhi puzzles so see if you can solve them.
Whoever can solves them then .................................good for you.
1) A person performs a correct, accepted, complete wudhu that includes all the required limbs and fulfills all the required conditions. But he is not permitted to pray with this wudu'. Why so?
2)A man visits another and greets him with the salaam, but the second man is not permitted to reply to him with the same or better. Both men are sane, baaligh (past the age of puberty) Muslims. Why?
3)man is fasting, and his fast becomes broken. But he did not eat or drink, receive any form of nourishment, nothing passed his throat, he has not induced vomiting, nothing has entered his bloodstream or stomach, he did not have intercourse or become aroused (and what follows it), and he had and maintained the correct intention to fast.why?
this is a realy good one
4) A man has water and clean dust with with him. He doesnt do wudhu or tayyamun. He then does salah. His salah is accepted. Why ???
......oh , and he is sane and has plenty of time to purifie himself
Tafadal
Umm Ahmed
15th November 2006, 10:05 AM
Ok here are are a few fiqhi puzzles so see if you can solve them.
Whoever can solves them then .................................good for you.
1) A person performs a correct, accepted, complete wudhu that includes all the required limbs and fulfills all the required conditions. But he is not permitted to pray with this wudu'. Why so?
Answer : It was a woman her period started ?
2)A man visits another and greets him with the salaam, but the second man is not permitted to reply to him with the same or better. Both men are sane, baaligh (past the age of puberty) Muslims. Why?
Answer: The one who could not answer was urinating ?
3)man is fasting, and his fast becomes broken. But he did not eat or drink, receive any form of nourishment, nothing passed his throat, he has not induced vomiting, nothing has entered his bloodstream or stomach, he did not have intercourse or become aroused (and what follows it), and he had and maintained the correct intention to fast.why?
Answer : he was travelling and the people there broke their fast before the place he left ?
this is a realy good one
4) A man has water and clean dust with with him. He doesnt do wudhu or tayyamun. He then does salah. His salah is accepted. Why ???
......oh , and he is sane and has plenty of time to purifie himself
Answer : I dont know
Tafadal
Abu Faaris As-Sumalee
15th November 2006, 10:11 AM
1) No( all q's are refering to men)
2) LOL, when was the last time you visited somone in the toilet, so NO
3)NO
Umm Ahmed
15th November 2006, 10:37 AM
I meant he was in the bathroom when he went to visit . lol never mind is the last one because he never broke his wadu ?
keep this up brother its a good way to learn.
Umm Ahmed
15th November 2006, 10:46 AM
2) the man being visited left the door open for the man to enter and he was praying ?
abu hafs
15th November 2006, 11:00 AM
1.) The man was junub ?
2)The man is in salah hence not allowed to reply ?
3) It was the day of Eid ?
4) He already has wudhu and doesn't need to do it ?
Abu Faaris As-Sumalee
15th November 2006, 03:45 PM
1)YES ,When a man is in a state of ritual impurity, wudhu will not suffice, he must do gusl
2)YES , This was permited then abrogated with this ayah: "So, when the Quran is recited, listen to it, and be silent that you may receive mercy." in surah A'raf
3)NO, think on the lines of actions
4)NO
abu hafs
15th November 2006, 05:29 PM
3)He died ?
4) hes sooo sick that he cannot use water or sand ?
Abu Faaris As-Sumalee
15th November 2006, 05:34 PM
3) LOL, no , but i like where your going
4) Sorry i forgot to say that he is fully able, and any way how hard is it to do tayyamun? lol
Abu Faaris As-Sumalee
15th November 2006, 05:43 PM
Im going to give the answers by 5.15 pm uk time because i think someone might come up with the anwser, and i wouldnt want to be beaten at my own game now would i :D
Abu Faaris As-Sumalee
15th November 2006, 06:08 PM
And the answers are.....
3) The man became a murtad( he apostasized from islam)
I dont think you would have got this one coming up
4) The man was doing salat upon the prophet(saw), Alahum sali ala ......... , and you dont need wudhu for that.;)
waziri
15th November 2006, 06:24 PM
Could the answer to 2 also be that the man was eating?as ive heard that when eating one should not reply to any greeting but wait untill one has finished.
Abuz Zubair
15th November 2006, 10:02 PM
JK for that bro... but I think sister UmmA's responses were accurate too...
if 'he' was meant to refer to both sexes... (it is allowed in Arabic, and I assume in English, too?)
Abu Faaris As-Sumalee
16th November 2006, 12:28 AM
yeah i know but it would have been too easy
Abu Faaris As-Sumalee
16th November 2006, 10:56 PM
Ok here is one that you will not get inshallah
There is an act of worship that when you do it, nobody else on the whole earth can be doing it at the same time. Only when you are finished can someone else start it, but when he does nobody else on the whole earth can do it either until he is finished, and so on.
What is it?, who ever gets this one gets a "alahuma razuqaha/hu shahada" from me
moubeen
16th November 2006, 11:09 PM
Ok here is one that you will not get inshallah
There is an act of worship that when you do it, nobody else on the whole earth can be doing it at the same time. Only when you are finished can someone else start it, but when he does nobody else on the whole earth can do it either until he is finished, and so on.
What is it?, who ever gets this one gets a "alahuma razuqaha/hu shahada" from me
Kissing the Stone in the Kaaba, in Makkah??
Abu Faaris As-Sumalee
16th November 2006, 11:13 PM
that quick!!!!, Mashallah
you got the dua, but i will be back
Abu Faaris As-Sumalee
17th November 2006, 08:23 AM
all right heres one that inshallah your not gonna get.
A man is caught mentioning his intention for worship out loud, so he is told that this is a bid'a. He says that he is with in his rights to do it , and it turns out that he is indeed allowed to mention it out loud. Why so???
No clues and this will be closed at magrib allright.
Umm Ahmed
17th November 2006, 10:02 AM
His intention to make hajj and umrah ?
Abu Faaris As-Sumalee
17th November 2006, 10:25 AM
be very specific
Umm Ahmed
17th November 2006, 02:40 PM
The taalbiyah at the appropriate Miqaat . the intention the doning of the ihram ect ?
Abu Faaris As-Sumalee
17th November 2006, 02:50 PM
ok intention for ihram is one, but whats the other???
Abu Faaris As-Sumalee
17th November 2006, 08:56 PM
sorry about late reply
two answers are
1) when putting on ihram
2) when sacrificing
Abu Faaris As-Sumalee
17th November 2006, 09:49 PM
Salam wa alakum
Lets see who can gets this one.
1)A Woman is halal to three men in one day and takes two and a half dowries, explain how.
This ones a bit of aqeeda but its a good one.
2) What is the compalsory act of clear cut kufr that everyone has to do to enter janah.
enjoy
Aboo Suhayb
18th November 2006, 01:54 AM
1) not sure
2) the Shahadah? La Illah Ill-Allah There is no deity worthy of worship (negation) except Allah (affirmation) - so just the negation is clear cut kufr but once you add the affirmation (which ofcourse is part of it) you will enter jannah?
Allah Knows Best
Abu Faaris As-Sumalee
18th November 2006, 02:08 AM
2) I said a action of clear cut kufr that you must do to enter janah. but i like where your going.
juwairiyah
18th November 2006, 01:33 PM
Assalamo'alaykum Warahmatullah Wabarakatuh
People will ask prophets to intercede to ALlah on their behalf but none will do except Muhammed S.A.W who'll prostrate before Allah and praise Him and his intercession will be accepted.
But in this world we r not to seek intercession through anyone not even muhammed S.A.W. The only thing thta we can do is mention our good deeds and ask directly to Allah as is evident in the ayah " I respond to the invocations of the supplicant when he calls on Me."(surah Baqrah)
Abu Faaris As-Sumalee
18th November 2006, 09:30 PM
......erm , jazakullah khair akhi
Any way, the answer for the second one was kufr bitaghoot, wich is disbelifing in all false objects of worship, living or non-living. You cant enter jannah untill you have done this and only belif in allah. The ulema have said that this is 1/2 of the shahadah. because of this ayah.
áÇó ÅößúÑóÇåó Ýöí ÇáÏøöíäö ÞóÏ ÊøóÈóíøóäó ÇáÑøõÔúÏõ ãöäó ÇáúÛóíøö Ýóãóäú íóßúÝõÑú ÈöÇáØøóÇÛõæÊö æóíõÄúãöä ÈöÇááøåö ÝóÞóÏö ÇÓúÊóãúÓóßó ÈöÇáúÚõÑúæóÉö ÇáúæõËúÞóìó áÇó ÇäÝöÕóÇãó áóåóÇ æóÇááøåõ ÓóãöíÚñ Úóáöíãñ
There is no compulsion in religion. Verily, the Right Path has become distinct from the wrong path. Whoever disbelieves in Tâghût and believes in Allâh, then he has grasped the most trustworthy handhold that will never break. And Allâh is All-Hearer, All-Knower. (Al-Baqarah 2:256)
Allah says to disbelif in tahgoot before beliving in Allah, thus disbelif in all other objects of worship must be done before beliving in Allah the supreme, and this is the essence of the shahadah.
I will leave the 1st question up because i want to give you more time.
Umm Ahmed
19th November 2006, 06:14 AM
Question {1}
Ok she got her divorce and her mahr and muakhira from her first husband in the morning then she got married in the evening and got her mahr from her second husband . So thats two and a half dowries bi ithnilaah ?
The part you said about three men became halal to her that day if you mean halal in the sense between husband and wife then I dont know how a third would enter into this , Unless you meant halaal as in kith and kin yaani became mahram , that would mean the man she married in the evening has a son, or its her father inlaw?
Abu Faaris As-Sumalee
19th November 2006, 09:19 AM
ok sis , you got the first 1st and 3rd payment right, now think, can a woman marry whenever she wants after a divorce?
Also think about mahar and divorces and what dicides how much mahar is given.
This is good!, i think we are learning to think well inshallah.
.......oh yeah when i said halal, i mean between husband and wife. When we talk about mahram we say that they are haram for each other.
Umm Ahmed
19th November 2006, 11:19 AM
Ok I was thinking along the lines of ,yes she has to do the idda but she got her money when her idda finnished that day . I wont be able to get the three man thing , unless she got married then had it annuled mid afternoon , I'm not familar with the divorce part of Islam .
I'll learn from the answer .
leave this Q up for a while , be interesting to see what others think the answer is .
juwairiyah
19th November 2006, 06:15 PM
Assalamo'alaykum Warahmatullah Wabarakatuh
What is the compalsory act of clear cut kufr that everyone has to do to enter janah.
bro,disbelieving in all the things and believing only in Allah is an act of kufr?
Abu Faaris As-Sumalee
19th November 2006, 11:20 PM
what does kufr mean?, disbelif right?, so when you disbelif in vishnu or husni mubarak , for example , thats an act of kufr.
juwairiyah
26th November 2006, 06:02 PM
Assalamo'alaykum Warahmatullah Wabarakatuh
I can think of a woman being halal to two men in a day only
A woman became awidow and delivered the baby thta very day .So her iddah finishes the moment she delivers.Suppose she remarries in the eve so she is halal to wo in a day Allahu alam
Abu Faaris As-Sumalee
26th November 2006, 07:15 PM
lol, i forgot about this.
The answer is: a man divorces his wife and then gives her full dowry, she then gives birth at noon and then marrys another man , this man divorces her without consumating the marriage and so gives her half the dowry. The woman then marrys another man and then is divorced again after consumation, so she would get the full dowry.
In conclusion: the woman is halal to 3 men in one day and gets 2 and a half payments.
juwairiyah
26th November 2006, 10:53 PM
Assalamo'alaykum Warahmatullah Wabarakatuh
I saw in islam-qa.com that a woman has to spend her iddah even if she did not comsummate the marriage and she can inherit too.http://islam-qa.com/index.php?ref=11724&ln=eng&txt=iddah%20no%20consummation
gag order
26th November 2006, 11:02 PM
hang on, a divorced women gives birth by noon marries another but divorces again and marries another but this time consumates the same day so soon after childbirth, is that allowed?
Abu Faaris As-Sumalee
27th November 2006, 04:13 AM
hang on, a divorced women gives birth by noon marries another but divorces again and marries another but this time consumates the same day so soon after childbirth, is that allowed?
why is it not allowed?. she gave birth, so she passed her idda so she can marry anyone she wants and have relations with him.
The only time you cant have relations with your wife is when she is on her menses. Of course it might not be very nice for the misses but its perfictly plausable for the man to have relations with his wife after she has concieved.
Umm Ahmed
27th November 2006, 07:52 AM
Gag Order is right , after delivery a woman bleeds and that blood is nifaas (post partum bleeding )
Umm Salamah (may Allaah be pleased with her): “At the time of the Messenger of Allaah (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him), women in nifaas used to stay (not praying etc) for forty days” – narrated by Abu Dawood, 139; al-Albaani said it is hasan saheeh. This is the view of the majority.
Side note on this is that a lot of women will become pure and use this hadith as a reason not to pray for 40 days , thats not correct as soon as she sees the purity she is to start praying and she becomes halaal for her husband.
And Allaah knows best.
Excellent thread Abu Faaris As-Sumalee, we think and learn.
Abu Faaris As-Sumalee
27th November 2006, 10:59 AM
Alahamdulah Allah wrote for me to learn somthing:
"Lochia is the name given to postpartum bleeding. Every woman who delivers a child, either vaginally or through cesarean section, will experience this type of bleeding. It is the way in which your body expels excess mucus, placental tissue, and blood after giving birth.
Lochia is very similar to the bleeding you experience during your menstrual period, however, it is much heavier. It typically begins in the hours immediately following birth and usually continues for two or three weeks. However, in some women lochia can last for up to six weeks."
........However my puzzle was how can a woman be halal for 3 men and recieve 2 and a half payments.
my answer was exactly how that could happen. I didnt say that the man wasnt sinfull or that he was knowlable about the ahkam of Allah.
But just all of you are satisfied, i will give you another answer.
The first man divorces her and gives her a full payment , then she delivers her baby. She then gets married to another man who divorces her after being alone in a room with her, having enough time to have consumated the marriage, so he pays full, then she marrys another man who doesnt get this opertunity at all and then divorces her so she gets half payments.
Wich ever answer you want, it doesnt matter. What matters is that we learnt and that no one got the answer:D
juwairiyah
27th November 2006, 12:03 PM
Assalamo'alaykum Warhamatullah Wabarakatuh
Allahualam but then how can this happen in a day i mean what abt the iddah when she remarried for the second time. I mean first is okay she sdelivered that very day so her iddah finished ....
Abu Faaris As-Sumalee
27th November 2006, 12:27 PM
he didnt consumate the marriage for the second marriage
juwairiyah
27th November 2006, 02:45 PM
he didnt consumate the marriage for the second marriage
Assalamo'alaykum Warahmatullah Wabarakatuh
so bro, no iddah if tehre hasnt been consumation?
Abu Faaris As-Sumalee
27th November 2006, 03:54 PM
if the marriage hasnt been consumated you dont have to wait to get married again.
juwairiyah
27th November 2006, 05:43 PM
if the marriage hasnt been consumated you dont have to wait to get married again.
Assalamo'alaykum Warahmatullah Wabarakatuh
yes bro this is what was botehring me as sheikh munajjid said she has to spend her iddah and she can inherit too Allahualam
Al-Tirmidhi (1145) narrated from Ibn Mas’ood that he was asked about a man who married a woman but he did not stipulate a dowry for her and he did not consummate the marriage with her, then he died. Ibn Mas’ood said: She should be given a dowry like that of women who are similar to her, no more and no less, and she has to observe the ‘iddah, and she is entitled to the inheritance. Ma’qil ibn Sinaan al-Ashja’i stood up and said: The Messenger of Allaah (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) passed a ruling concerning Birwa’ bint Waashiq, one of our womenfolk, that was like the ruling you have passed. Ibn Mas’ood was happy with this (news). Classed as saheeh by al-Albaani in al-Irwa’, 1939.
Turaabie
25th December 2006, 01:08 AM
As-Salaamu `Alaikum Wa-Rahmatullaahi,
Akhee, do you have any more?
Al-Hamdulillaah, found them quite beneficial...
Walaikumus-Salaam.
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