View Full Version : It's Arabic!
Fajr
8th December 2006, 09:22 PM
As-salaamu `alaykum
Learning arabic can sometimes become a bit difficult and you can easily lose motivation. So I thought of making this thread in order to capture interesting stories or aspects of the arabic language to give us more motivation inshaa'Allaah!
Please feel free to add to it...
Fajr
8th December 2006, 09:25 PM
الشعر العفوي
It is said that once a man who was learned in grammer left one day to argue and debate with the great grammarian Sibaweyh, author of ‘Al-Kitaab’*. He reached his home only to find that Sibaweyh had left and instead his khaadimah (maid) was home.
He asked whereabouts Sibaweyh had gone and when he’ll return. She replied with an amazing answer which demonstrated her great eloquence in the Arabic language. Pay close attention to the structure of the arabic words:
فاءَ إلى الفَيَافِي لِيَفِيئَ لنا فيئاً
حتى إذا فاءَ الفيئُ , فاء
He went (faa’a) to the desert (fayaafee) to hunt (yafee’a) for us a game (fay’)
Until when the shadow (fay’) retreats (faa’a), he’ll return (faa’a)
Most of the nouns and verbs she used was derived from the same root word (faa’), and different meanings of the same words… how eloquent and well established in the arabic language she was.
The man left at once! How was he to argue with Sibaweyh if this was how eloquent and gramatically-correct his khaadimah was!
More of Shi3r al-'Afawi ('spontaneous' poetry):
http://fajr.wordpress.com/2006/12/03...y-on-the-spot/ (http://fajr.wordpress.com/2006/12/03/poetry-on-the-spot/)
_______
* It is said that most likely it was Sibaweyh although I have yet to source this incident.
Fajr
9th December 2006, 12:31 PM
They say that…
من قال: قال الله, فقد كفر
Whoever says: 'Qaala Allaah', has indeed disbelieved!
For most people, this statement will seem shocking because it contradicts the belief that Allaah (‘azza wa jall) speaks.
وَ قالَ رَبّكُمُ ادْعُونِي أسْتَجِبْ لَكم
“And your Lord says (qaala): "Call on Me; I will answer you…” [Al-Ghaafir: 60]
But, if we contemplate we soon find that this isn’t what the statement is actually saying. No, not at all! And the confusion comes because we understand the verb ‘قال’ to mean only ‘say’.
However, there is also another verb ‘قال’ which means to sleep/take a nap. Huge difference! And one way of knowing which is which (apart from looking at the context), is to take the tasreef of the fi3l, i.e. to conjugate it into its present tense & looking at its jidhr (root).
قال — يَقول = to say
قال — يَقِيل = to sleep
The top verb has the root: ق و ل while the other is from the root: ق ي ل
From the latter verb (to sleep), we derive the following:
- Qayloolah (Siesta - ‘midday nap’)
- Qaa’ilah (the time of the Qayloolah)
- Al-Qayl (the drinking at midday)
Also, a person who sleeps at midday is referred to as a Qaa’il. But wait a minute… so is a person who is saying something!
قال قائِلٌ مِنهم إنّي كان لي قرينٌ
“One (qaa'ilun) of them will say: "I had a close companion (on the earth)” [As-Saaffaat: 51]
Well, the only way you can really differentiate between the two is by looking at the jam3 (plural):
Plural of speaker:
قائل — قائلون
Plural of one taking a midday nap:
قائل — قيَّل | قيّال | قيْل
[It can have 3 plurals - Quyyal, Quyyaal and Qayl]
So, yes…
من قال: قال الله - فقد كفر
Whoever says: Allaah sleeps (qaala) indeed has disbelieved!
Amazing sarf (morphology) for you… Mashaa’Allaah!
Abuz Zubair
9th December 2006, 02:23 PM
JK for this...
There is something similar I have come across, I think it is meant to be part of a poem, but here it goes anyway...
What is the I'rab for this:
قال عمرو أنَّ زيدٌ كريمٍ
Alomgir
12th December 2006, 05:15 PM
أن = F'il maadi mabni 'alal-fath (not sister of Inna!) which means to groan/moan.
زيد = Faa'il marfoo' wa 'alaamatu raf'ihi ad-dhammah adh-dhaahirah 'ala aakhirih.
ك = Harf jarr wa tashbeeh
ريم = ism majroor, majroor, wa 'alaamatu jarrihi al kasrah adh-dhaahirah 'ala aakhirih.
'Amr said that zaid moaned like a gazelle'
:D
Abuz Zubair
13th December 2006, 11:08 AM
Well done, matey! This must have been one of those taught to you at Markaz Fajr, eh, ya basha? ;)
Fajr
13th December 2006, 12:51 PM
Another twister one...
إنَّ اللهَ ليس بِخالِقٍ
و الرسول ليس بِبَشرٍ
Think sarf and also common sense...!
Alomgir
14th December 2006, 04:30 PM
hhmh,
I havent heard this one before! But let me guess.
The verb خلق has two meanings (maybe more):
1. To create.
2. To get worn out.
The second version of the verb is conjugated slightly differently: Khalaqa, YakhlAqu, rather than Khalaqa, YakhlUqu. hence, the hadith,
"Innal eemana layakhlaqu kamaa yakhlaqu ath-thawb..."
I.e. Verily Iman wears out like a thobe wears out..."
SOOO, Khaliq is I assume the active participle of that version of the verb. hence, it would mean: Verily Allah doesnt wear out??
I dont think that makes sense, but hey at least i tried.
Im still thinking about the second.
W/salam
Abuz Zubair
14th December 2006, 05:50 PM
Ok, I give up. I do remember Laysa was not fi'l naqis, but just a normal fi'l... can't remember what it meant...
Here is another one:
Two men are asked the following:
ألم تطلق امرأتك؟
They both say:
نعم
The wife of one of them is divorced, while the other is not. Why?
AbuAhmad
14th December 2006, 08:06 PM
They both divorce generally but one of them hasn't divorced his last one?
Guess work: Tatlaqu - present tense. Instead of Talaq-tuma, past tense.
Fajr
15th December 2006, 08:29 AM
SOOO, Khaliq is I assume the active participle of that version of the verb. hence, it would mean: Verily Allah doesnt wear out??Yes mashaa'Allah, that's correct.
The verb used is:
خَلِقَ - يخلَق [to grow old/worn out]
As opposed to:
خَلَقَ - يخلُق [to create]
That's the sarf part, and the 2nd is common sense.
Rasool here is not referring to Muhammad (s.a.w) but to Jibraa'il (AS)!
Abuz Zubair
15th December 2006, 11:02 AM
nope... each of them only has one wife... and the issue has more to do with nahw than fiqh. They both were asked exactly the same question, and they both gave exactly the same answer...
Here comes a hint, what do you say when someone asks:
أليس كذلك؟
Abuz Zubair
15th December 2006, 11:07 AM
Ok... that was a good one... I thought there is something in laysa, but I was wrong!
AbuAhmad
15th December 2006, 04:15 PM
Aren't women to be divorced ? One believes yes while the other believes not?
Abuz Zubair
15th December 2006, 07:40 PM
Nope :) One of the women IS divorced but the other is not.
AbuAhmad
16th December 2006, 03:01 AM
I give up.
Fajr
16th December 2006, 05:56 PM
I think it has a lot to do with the question being 'A-lam...?'
For the one who divorced his wife, he should've said 'balaa'... maybe he forgot!
Abuz Zubair
16th December 2006, 06:01 PM
Ok... it is to do with balaa...
Ok, this is how it goes...
First person was a grammarian, so when he was asked:
'Did you not divorce your wife'? He correctly say: 'Yes', meaning: 'I did not divorce my wife'. Affirmation of negative is negative.
The second person was a layman who cannot distinguish between na'am and balaa, so he simply said 'yes', meaning: 'yes, I did divorce my wife'.
AbuAhmad
16th December 2006, 08:03 PM
'Did you not divorce your wife'?
Why did you translate that sentence into maadi when the verb is mudarai? From my little understanding (I have only done basic serf), if I wanted to say Did you not divorce your wife, I would say:
ألم طلقت امراتك؟
and if i wanted to say, do you divorce your wife? (as in generally) then the former.
JK Clarification need.
Fajr
16th December 2006, 09:22 PM
The harf 'lam' is a negation that can only be followed by present tense verbs, never past. This is because 'lam' itself has a past tense connotation so the meaning of the sentence it's used for becomes one of past tense.
'Laa' and 'lan' are negations of the present and the future, and so they would be followed by fi3l al-mudhaari3.
'Maa' when used as a negation must be followed by fi3l al-maadhi.
Wallaahu a'lam!
AbuAhmad
16th December 2006, 10:40 PM
Oh right! I totally forgot about Nasb, Raff, Jaar rules. lol
Abuz Zubair
18th December 2006, 12:08 PM
It is a bit like English actually...
In English you say:
He went to school.
But when you add 'did', 'went' becomes 'go'.
He did not go to school.
He did go to school.
Did he go to school?
Amazing, eh?
AbuAhmad
24th December 2006, 03:12 AM
Can someone post more of these riddles? These are fun.
Fajr
24th December 2006, 01:17 PM
This is a bit old (pun unintended!), but nevertheless a very good piece
There's nothing to work out here, just enjoy the wit and intelligence of Hishaam al-Qooti
قال رجل لهشام القوطي: كم تعد؟
قال: واحد إلى ألف ألف وأكثر
قال: لم أرد هذا، كم تعد من السن؟
قال: اثنين وثلاثين، ست عشرة من أعلى وست عشرة من أسفل.
قال: لم أرد هذا، كم لك من السنين؟
قال: والله، ما لي فيها شيء، السنون كلها لله تعالى.
قال: يا هذا ما سنك؟
قال: عظم
قال: ابن كم أنت؟
قال: ابن اثنين، رجل وامرأة.
قال: كم أتى عليك؟
قال: لو اتى عليّ شيء لقتلني.
قال: فكيف أقول؟
قال: تقول: كم مضى من عمرك
Abuz Zubair
25th December 2006, 08:43 PM
Ok, how about if he were to ask:
كم عمرك؟
Fajr
18th February 2007, 12:50 PM
He would probably use a different meaning of 'umr (if there is one!)
Below is a really interesting post from Arabic Gems (http://www.arabicgems.wordpress.com)
To look back to the original meaning of a word is to embark on more than just a linguistic voyage; in some cases, tracing a word back to its original meaning is actually the key to unlocking one of the treasures of the guidance of the Qur’an.
For example, Allaah said in the introduction to the story of Prophet Yusuf (http://quran.islamicnetwork.com/viewverses.php?q=12&langs=259) (peace be upon him),
<BIG>نَحْنُ نَقُصُّ عَلَيْكَ أَحْسَنَ الْقَصَصِ بِمَا أَوْحَيْنَا إِلَيْكَ هَـذَا الْقُرْآنَ وَإِن كُنتَ مِن قَبْلِهِ لَمِنَ الْغَافِلِينَ</BIG>
We relate to you, the best of stories (qasas) in what We have revealed to you of this Qur’an although you were, before it, among the unaware.
wherein the real secret behind Allah relating this storyto uslies in none other than the word story itself.
The word being used for story in this verse is qissah<BIG> قصة </BIG>(pl. qasas <BIG>قصص</BIG>), is derived from the root qaaf-saad ق-ص. The primary connotation of this root is ‘to follow’. This meaning is further evidenced by the verse (http://quran.islamicnetwork.com/viewverses.php?q=28%3A11&Submit=Search),
<BIG>وَقَالَتْ لِأُخْتِهِ قُصِّيهِ</BIG>
And she said to his sister, “Follow him”
wherein the mother of Prophet Musa (peace be upon him) told his sister to follow Musa after the family of the Pharoah had picked him from the river, and the word used by Allah for ‘follow’ in the verse was qusseehi<BIG> قُصِّيهِ</BIG>- also derived from the root<BIG> ق-ص</BIG>.
Similarly, the juridical term qisaas<BIG> قصاص </BIG>referring to the law of equality in punishment, is so called because it involves following in the footsteps of another - doing to one person what they have done to another.
And thus we find that the word qissah<BIG> قصة </BIG>(story) as has been used in the Qur’an has been chosen over all other synonyms (such as hadeeth<BIG> حديث </BIG>or hikaayah <BIG>حكاية</BIG>) because it indicates that the story is not being narrated for the sake of amusement or entertainment, but rather within the word itself lies the explanation that the story is being related for the reader to follow in the footsteps of the one being spoken about in the story… although you were, before it, among the unaware.
Fajr
14th May 2007, 12:55 PM
In the Islamic sciences, whether it be ‘Aqeedah, Fiqh, Tafseer etc, words and their meanings are always taken from two perspectives. They are either looked at linguistically (لُغَةً) or legalistically (شَرْعاً) - majority of the time, both are used to explain concepts.
This post will be going into all the different linguistical meanings of the word kaafir (كَافِر).
_________________
The verb kafara كَفرَ literally means to cover up/conceal something (التغطِيَة). This is the asl (original meaning).
As mentioned previously, kaafir is also an ingrate who is ungrateful to the favours and good given to him by someone. It is said كُفْرُ النعمة (to ‘disbelieve’ in the favour/blessing).
The disbeliever who chooses to disbelieve in his Lord can have both meanings applied to him as Ibn as-Sakeet mentions: “The disbeliever is called ‘kaafir’ because he has covered up the blessings of Allaah.” Al-Azhari said, “And the blessings of Allaah are His verses which all point to His Oneness (Tawheed).”
The plurals of the word ‘kaafir’ (when used in above meanings) are: Kuffaar (كُفَّار), Kafara (كَفَرَة), and Kifaar (كِفارٌ)
_________________
The farmer is also called ‘kaafir’ because he covers up the seed after planting it. Allaah (subhaanahu wa ta’aala) uses this meaning in various verses,
كمَثَلِ غَيْثٍ أَعْجَبَ الكفارَ نباتُه
“as the likeness of vegetation after rain, thereof the growth is pleasing to the tiller (kuffaar)…” [al-Hadeed: 20]
It is even said that the term used in this verse (kuffaar) points to the disbelievers who disbelieve in Allaah (as opposed to ‘farmers’) because they are the most pleased with the beauty and glamour of this world compared to the believers.
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The night is also called ‘kaafir’ because according to the Sihaah, it covers up everything with its darkness. It is said, “The night covered up (كَفَرَ) the footsteps of its companion”, just like it’s said, “Ignorance has covered up (كَفَرَ) the knowledge of so-and-so”
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The sea is also termed ‘kaafir’ due to the fact that it hides and covers up what is beneath it. The plural of kaafir here would be ‘kifaar’
Al-Lihyaani said in a piece of poetry,وغُرِّقَتِ الفراعِنَةُ الكِفَارُ
“And the Pharoahs were drowned by the kifaar (seas)”
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Wide valleys and rivers are also called ‘kaafir’ and in fact there is a river somewhere in the peninsula called ‘kaafir!’
_________________
The rain hasn’t escaped all the name-calling either! Yes, مَطَر (rain) is also termed kaafir. Ibn Bari in his explanation of al-‘Asaa said, “الكافرُ المطرُ, - the rain is (called) kaafir.” And he recited the lines of poetry,
وحَدَّثَها الرُّوَّادُ أَنْ ليس بينهما
وبين قُرَى نَجْرانَ والشامِ، كافِرُ
“And the visitors said to her that there was not between them and the villages of Najran and Shaam, a kaafir (rain)”
_________________
Dark clouds are also referred to as ‘kaafir’. Darkness in general is called kaafir and kafr because again, it covers what is under it. Dust and sand are also called kafr due to the same reason.
_________________
Amazingly, the tar that is used to paint ships is also a kaafir! This is due to its extremely dark colour and the fact that it covers and conceals everything its painted with.
_________________
And finally, as mentioned by Ibn as-Sakeet, the person who wears his armour and weapons and then conceals it with his normal clothes is termed as ‘kaafir’ because he is concealing all his weaponry.
A very interesting piece from al-Layth and al-Azhari:
Al-Layth: “It is said that the Kaafir (disbeliever) is called such because disbelief has covered up his heart.”
Al-Azhari said: “This statement of al-Layth requires some clarification, that in language ‘Kufr’ means ‘to cover up’ and ‘wrap.’ Hence the kaafir possesses disbelief i.e. a covering over his heart due to his disbelief. This is just like the one covered up in weapons (silaah) is called ‘kaafir’ (linguistically).”
“And there is a better explanation than he alluded to and that is: When Allaah called the disbeliever to His Oneness (Tawheed), He has indeed called him to His blessings and liked for him to answer (that call). So when he (the disbeliever) refused what Allah had called him to, then he is a kaafir (ingrate) to the blessing of Allaah, i.e. covered up and concealed the blessing by his refusal.
And in the hadeeth of the Messenger (sallallaahu `alayhi wa sallam), when he said in his farewell pilgrimage: “Do not become disbelievers (kaafireen) after me by striking the necks of one another.”
Abu Mansoor said, “In his saying there are 2 meanings (for this):
Firstly - ‘kaafireen’ i.e. wearing armour, weaponry and artillery (1 of the meanings above taken), preparing militarily to fight (against one’s brother)…”
Secondly - ‘kaafireen’ i.e. like what the khawaarij did, in considering the people to be disbelievers and pronouncing takfeer upon them and this is like his (sallallaahu `alayhi wa sallam)’s saying, “Whoever says to his brother ‘O kaafir’ then one of them is surely that”…
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http://fajr.wordpress.com/2007/04/30/disbelief-or-is-it/
[Information taken from Lisaan al-Arab]
Fajr
7th June 2007, 09:18 PM
Allaah `azza wa jall, says in Soorah al-Nisaa:
http://www.quranicrealm.com/images/4_85.gif
“Whosoever intercedes for a good cause will have a ‘naseeb’ thereof, and whosoever intercedes for an evil cause will have a ‘kifl’ of it. And Allah is Ever All-Able to do everything.” [al-Nisaa: 85]
Let’s have a look at these 2 separate words (in bold)
نصيبٌ
كِفْلٌ
They both mean the same thing – they both mean ‘portion’ or ‘a part of something’. Allaah `azza wa jall is informing us that the one who intercedes for a good or a bad cause will receive a portion of that deed written down for him. But why the 2 different words if they both mean the same thing?Well, do they mean exactly the same thing? Let’s take a look.
The word ‘kifl’ is very ‘muhaddad’ – restricted and bounded. In language it means: a portion that is equal in all spheres, as they say النصيب المساوي –an equal portion, no shortcoming therein nor any ‘ziyaada’ – increase. Allaah `azza wa jall used this word here to inform us that the one who does intercede for an evil cause will only receive an equal portion thereof – there is no injustice. As He says in Soorah al-Ghaafir:
http://www.quranicrealm.com/images/40_40.gif
“Whosoever does an evil deed, will not be requited except the like thereof…” [al-Ghaafir: 40]
As for the word ‘naseeb’ then again it also means ‘portion’ but amazingly it has an added meaning of ‘ziyaada’ (increase) and that the portion can be multiplied. It is for this reason that when speaking of the reward/portion of the one who intercedes for a good cause, Allaah subhaanahu wa ta’aala uses the word ‘naseeb’.
As is known, out the mercy, favour and generosity of Allaah, the reward for good deeds are multiplied by ten times and more (up to 700 times) whereas the evil deed is only written down once and this is highlighted ever so subtly and yet so profoundly in the simple ayah above: “Whosoever intercedes for a good cause will have a ‘naseeb’ thereof, and whosoever intercedes for an evil cause will have a ‘kifl’ of it. And Allah is Ever All-Able to do everything.” [al-Nisaa: 85]
It is for this reason that the above ayah in Soorah al-Ghaafir ends with…
“Whosoever does an evil deed, will not be requited except the like thereof, and whosoever does a righteous deed, whether male or female and is a true believer, such will enter Paradise, where they will be provided therein without limit.” [al-Ghaafir: 40]
Fajr
4th February 2008, 07:31 PM
Consider the following verse:
http://islamicity.com/mosque/arabicscript/Ayat/36/36_40.gif (http://islamicity.com/mosque/arabicscript/Ayat/36/ra101_36-40.ram)
What do you notice in particular about the part where it says, و كل في فلك يسبحون - taking the context of the verse into consideration?
Fajr
8th February 2008, 06:40 PM
Paying close attention to where it says كل في فلك (each is in an orbit) you can see that there is a very clear symmetry between the words. In other words, the sentence reads the same forwards as it does backwards!
Try it: Write out this part of the ayah backwards spreading out the letters - it reads the same.
I had previously came across this fantastic composition in some Arabic poetry a couple of months back, and the poets/those excelling in literacy would often use this to display their skill and profiency.
However, the more you read and understand the verse, the more this ties in so well with the actual context of the ayah. Allaah `azza wa jall has so perfectly laid out the systematic functions of the universe such that the sun and moon are both on a course, never superceding one another and neither does day or night. Each runs its course and the orbit no matter which direction its viewed from (like the sentence), remains the same for these celestial bodies, and one event leads onto the other, just like the letters lead one onto the other from both directions of the sentence.
I know, this might be a tad bit boring for some of you, but really it’s fantastic - especially since it was only recently that I discovered poetry that could be read fowards as well as backwards. I think in one funny piece, a poet was seemingly praising someone but when his poem was read backwards it actually was an insult!
Abuz Zubair
8th February 2008, 07:02 PM
Very interesting.
I know, this might be a tad bit boring for some of you, but really it’s fantastic - especially since it was only recently that I discovered poetry that could be read fowards as well as backwards. I think in one funny piece, a poet was seemingly praising someone but when his poem was read backwards it actually was an insult!
Can you give us an example?
Fajr
8th February 2008, 07:43 PM
There was a whole thread on it in the Arabic language section of multaqa... tried to look for it, but can't seem to find it. Insha'Allah I'll put it up once I can locate it
hearandobey
11th June 2008, 12:01 AM
people PLEASE revive this thread again! :)
there should be more stuff going in the arabic section.
i'm studying the alfiyah at the moment, inshallah i'll post some of the fawa'id i learnt soon.
Fajr
11th June 2008, 10:37 AM
Masha'Allah that's great, please make a thread in this Arabic section on the Alfiyyah!
Fajr
11th June 2008, 10:41 AM
people PLEASE revive this thread again! :)
Reading through Soorat Maryam had me thinking of various points, one of which was the repetitive use of the word فرد as opposed to the word واحد - they both mean ‘one’/single/alone etc but people tend to use them interchangeably. I wondered if there was more to this & then I noticed that throughout the Qur’aan when it speaks of Mankind being raised up and the wrongdoers brought to Allaah for judgement it says that they will come, فرادى (alone) and the word waahid is not mentioned as much.
So why is this the case if they both mean the same thing?!
Well, do they both mean exactly the same thing?
No actually, not if we dig deep enough!
They say that:
الفرد: لا يفيد الانفراد من القرن
والواحد : يفيد الانفراد من القرن في الذات أو الصفة
In other words, the term fard has no special connotation to it, and the one who is described as being fard is one that is alone, with no special value or rank. He is completely alone and carries nothing of material gain or even honour in some cases. This is in contrast to the term waahid which indicates that although the person is one and alone, they have شأن (status), degree and is distinguished from others. They are alone but yet they carry with them much more, like respect, honour and value.
This is remarkable considering how Allaah `azza wa jall always describes Himself in the Qur’aan as being ‘Waahid’ and never ‘Fard’
This is also the reason perhaps, that Allah says:
أَفَرَأَيْتَ الَّذِي كَفَرَ بِآيَاتِنَا وَقَالَ لَأُوتَيَنَّ مَالاً وَوَلَداً
“Have you seen him who disbelieved in Our Verses and says: “I shall certainly be given wealth and children.” [Maryam: 77]
وَنَرِثُهُ مَا يَقُولُ وَيَأْتِينَا فَرْداً
“…We shall inherit from him all that he talks of (i.e. wealth and children), and he shall come to Us alone (fardan)” [Maryam: 80] - i.e. without all the materialistic gains and honour/position which he had attributed to himself.
Interestingly, it also says in Soorah al-An’aam:
وَلَقَدْ جِئْتُمُونَا فُرَادَى كَمَا خَلَقْنَاكُمْ أَوَّلَ مَرَّةٍ
“And truly you have come unto Us alone (furaada) as We created you the first time…” [al-An'aam: 94]
In tafseer al-Kashaaf, it mentions that this verse actually came down regarding al-Waleed ibn al-Mugheerah who incredibly was nicknamed ‘al-Waheed’ by the people They say that he was called so due to his leadership, wealth and honour. Subhanallaah, what a powerful message then this ayah sends to him, when Allaah says, ‘You have come to Us alone’ - using the term fard instead of waahid, which corresponds to his nickname!
If you thought that was something, see what He `azza wa jall says in al-Muddathir (in those 16 verses that were revealed about al-Waleed):
ذَرْنِي وَمَنْ خَلَقْتُ وَحِيداً
“Leave Me Alone (to deal) with whom I created Alone (waheed).”
Subhanallaah! Indeed, what a humiliation for al-Waleed ibn al-Mugheerah. Truly, Allaah alone is al-Waahid al-Waheed.
hearandobey
11th June 2008, 11:10 AM
subhanallah that's amazing.
i've got saeed al-qahtani's explanation of Allah swt's names and i was reading the section on al-ali, al-a'la, al-muta'al, in which explains the differences between them, although if you translate them to english you'd get "the high, the most high" etc...
inshallah i'll post up the scan soon
hearandobey
11th June 2008, 11:15 AM
pls see the attachments :)
uluww al-dhaat, uluww al-daqr, 3laa or artaf3a 3la al-3rsh and fawq al-makhluqat
hearandobey
11th June 2008, 11:23 AM
btw sis, which book did you use to look up the differences between fard and waahid?
Fajr
11th June 2008, 11:38 AM
Jazakillahu khayran!
The differences in lugha (and many other cool differences) were listed on this thread: http://www.ahlalhdeeth.com/vb/showthread.php?t=37921
I tried checking Lisaan al-'Arab but all it mentioned was an opinion of one grammarian who said the complete opposite, and the other grammarians rebuked him for it!
hearandobey
11th June 2008, 12:39 PM
jzk for the link... is taaj al-aroos also useful when searching for these kinds of terms and differences?
speaking of fard/waahid, i remember once how my dad was very disappointed when al-arabiya news channel were reporting deaths of people after a car bomb because they used "fard", ie. "20 fards died after the attack" and he found it so derogatory! lol, he thought at least saying "shakhs" would've been better...
Abu Bakr as-Somali
8th September 2008, 11:00 PM
Ukthee do you know how much Lisan Arab costs? and is Lisan al-Arab the best arabic dictionary (note I know arabic)? I heard it has not only the meaning but where it came from and correction of ppl who use it in the wrong way etc. and how many books/parts is it? and for how much? Is there a place in Cairo wher you can get it?
hearandobey
8th September 2008, 11:40 PM
you can download the complete set (scanned) from here (http://forums.islamicawakening.com/showpost.php?p=133573&postcount=3).
Abu Bakr as-Somali
8th September 2008, 11:50 PM
JZK but I want to buy it as I want to travel with it etc. and read it in my room, and the light of the computer gives me a headache.
hearandobey
8th September 2008, 11:52 PM
However, the more you read and understand the verse, the more this ties in so well with the actual context of the ayah. Allaah `azza wa jall has so perfectly laid out the systematic functions of the universe such that the sun and moon are both on a course, never superceding one another and neither does day or night. Each runs its course and the orbit no matter which direction its viewed from (like the sentence), remains the same for these celestial bodies, and one event leads onto the other, just like the letters lead one onto the other from both directions of the sentence.
Yes, this "sub-science" from the uloom al-quraan on munasabaat, nadhm and tarteeb of ayaat and suwar is really a fascinating one. A brother from multaqa listed the names of books on this very subject:
فمن المؤلفات :
البرهان في تناسب سور القرآن لأبي جعفر الغرناطي.
تناسق الدرر في تناسب السور للسيوطي.
نظم الدرر في تناسب الآيات والسور للبقاعي .
جواهر البيان في تناسب سور القرآن للغماري
النظم الفني في القرآن للصعيدي
مصابيح الدرر في تناسب الآيات والسور لأبي العلا
علم المناسبات في السور والآيات لبازمول
دلائل النظام للفراهي
ومن التفاسير المعتنية بهذا العلم
الكشاف للزمخشري
التفسير الكبير للرازي
البحر المحيط لأبي حيان
المحرر الوجيز لابن عطية
التحرير والتنوير لابن عاشور
في ظلال القرآن لسيد قطب
وهناك تفاسير مفقودة نقل عنها كثير من هؤلاء
والحديث عن هذا العلم يحتاج إلى بسط , لعلي ـ بإذن الله ـ أفرد له موضوعاً.
أسرار ترتيب القرءان ، للسيوطي ، حققه عبدالقادر أحمد عطا
I've started reading Nadhm al-Durar by Imam al-Baqa'i, you can download it here (scanned) (http://www.archive.org/details/nathmeldourare) or from al-Meshkat (http://www.almeshkat.net/books/open.php?cat=6&book=2133). Description of the book:
كتاب جليل وضع فيه مصنفه علما لم يسبقه إليه أحد، ذكر فيه مناسبات ترتيب السور والآيات، أطال فيه التدبر وأنعم فيه التفكر لآيات الكتاب. فهو إذا يشمل على أحد جوانب الإعجاز اللغوي في القرآن الكريم. بين فيه الربط بين جميع أجزاء القرآن، ووجه النظم مفصلا بين كل آية وآية في كل سورة من القرآن الكريم ..
في كشف الضنون [ جزء 2 - صفحة 1962 ]
نظم الدرر في تناسب الآي والسور في التفسير
للشيخ الإمام برهان الدين : إبراهيم بن عمر البقاعي المتوفى : سنة 885 ، خمس وثمانين وثمانمائة
وهو : كتاب لم يسبقه إليه أحد جمع فيه : من أسرار القرآن ما تتحير منه العقول
وذكر في آخره :
أنه فرغ منه في : سابع شعبان سنة : 875 ، خمس وسبعين وثمانمائة
وكان ابتداؤه : في شعبان سنة 861 ، إحدى وستين وثمانمائة
فتلك : أربع عشرة سنة
Abu Bakr as-Somali
9th September 2008, 10:57 AM
Another one, I write it in Latin cause Arabic would give it away
Imra'ah (woman) Zawajtuhaa wa anaa Waladatuhaa wa hiyya Umi.
btw, it has nothing to do with Nahw or something ;)
Fajr
24th September 2008, 12:32 PM
^ Confusing! Are you sure it's 'zawwajtuhaa'?
_________
Allah Subhanahu wa Ta’ala mentions in Soorah al-Nisaa:
لَّـكِنِ الرَّاسِخُونَ فِي الْعِلْمِ مِنْهُمْ وَالْمُؤْمِنُونَ يُؤْمِنُونَ بِمَا أُنزِلَ إِلَيكَ وَمَا أُنزِلَ مِن قَبْلِكَ وَالْمُقِيمِينَ الصَّلاَةَ وَالْمُؤْتُونَ الزَّكَاةَ وَالْمُؤْمِنُونَ بِاللّهِ وَالْيَوْمِ الآخِرِ أُوْلَـئِكَ سَنُؤْتِيهِمْ أَجْراً عَظِيماً
“But those among them who are well-grounded in knowledge, and the believers, believe in what has been sent down to you and what was sent down before you, and those who perform prayers, and give Zakat and believe in Allah and in the Last Day, it is they to whom We shall give a great reward.” [al-Nisaa: 162]
Point of benefit (grammar):
All the descriptions given to each type of people (e.g. rasikhoon fil ‘ilm, mu’minoon billah, mu’toon al-zakat) are in a state of raf’ i.e marfoo’ (nominative) but the description ‘muqeemeen al-salaah’ is actually in a state of nasb (accusative).
Why?!
Sibaweyh and other grammarians have said that this word technically in the sentence should be marfoo’ but here it is mansoob for a specific reason. The reason is what’s referred to as ‘Ikhtisaas’ - specification.
Allah `azza wa jall is saying:
الراسخون في العلم … والمؤمنون … وأخص المقيمين الصلاة
The rasikhoon (grounded) in knowledge, the believers, but I specifically mean those who establish prayers…. it is they whom We shall give a great reward.
This rule is from bab al-Ikhtisaas in grammar, where you specify and highlight something in a sentence to show its importance. For example, I could say:
نحن - جنودَ - أقوياء
We (and I specifically mean) the army, are strong.
By putting the khabr (predicate) in a state of nasb, you introduce it now as:
مفعول به على الإختصاص لفعل محذوف تقديره: أخُصّ
So in the previous verse from soorah al-Nisaa, from the list of people mentioned by Allah subhanahu wa ta’ala, He specificies those who establish prayer and through the usage of grammatical ikhtisas, it is shown that they have a rank of importance, honour and virtue over the rasikhoon fil-’ilm (those grounded in knowledge), the mu’toona-zakat (those who give charity), and even the mu’minoon billah because none of these really benefit a person if he or she is not muqeem al-salah (someone who establishes prayer). Amazing right?
A question: The verse starts off with ‘Lakin’ (لكن) but isn’t that a particle from the sisters of ‘Inna’ (nawasib)? And if so, how comes the words following it e.g. rasikhoon are not in a state of nasb?
Abu Bakr as-Somali
4th October 2008, 12:23 PM
lol Tuhaa is the fathers name.
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