Salamalikum After hearing all the rapes that have been done in history even by the most advanced nations and the infamous opinion of the Rabbi's i've come to the conclusion that we Muslim should not try to make excuses anymore regarding slave women and of course there is nothing wrong with it. Now of course there rapings and what not is nothing compared to the institution of slavery in Islam however i do have a question and it is regarding this article I read in islamic-life.com (which i believe a few members here are running the site) Muslim Response Does Islam Permit Muslim Men to Rape Their Slave Girls? This article says that if either a slave or a free women is raped than they are to be given the hadd, okay, understandable and it is supported but this is for the slave or free women who is not your slave girl or free women. However when going through some of the ahadith regarding the sahaba who wanted to have sex with there slaves they said that this is not considered rape. Okay i agree but my question is, if your slave girl refuses you sex since she is your slave can't the logic be said by some of the people that yes you can? What have our scholars said? Now lets say it is haram (for instance like the case of your wife where the hadith speaking about your wife refusing it is not that you take it by force but rather she is cursed till the morning.) if a man rapes his wife or slave would they receive the same hadd (punishment by death) or something of a lesser degree? Or nothing at all? edit: My answer was answered a little bit by this statement of Ashafi "If a man acquires by force a slave-girl, then has sexual intercourse with her after he acquires her by force, and if he is not excused by ignorance, then the slave-girl will be taken from him, he is required to pay the fine, and he will receive the punishment for illegal sexual intercourse." (Imam Al Shaafi'i, Kitaabul Umm, Volume 3, page 253) What does it mean by acquire a slave girl by force? Does this mean by jihad or by actually stealing a girl?